T.D.Medical college Alappuzha

[9th January 2005]

Answers of All India PG Exam held on 9th January 2005
Question 1. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except:
4. In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity.

Question 2.+ The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except:
1. Ketamine.


Question 3. +Which one of the following anaesthetic agents causes a rise in the Intracranial pressure :
1. Sevoflurane.


Question 4. The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except:
1. Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV).


Question 5.+ The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are:
2. Gram negative organisms.


Question 6. A Lower Segment Caesarean Section (LSCS) can be carried out under all the following techniques of anaesthesia except:
3. Caudal anaesthesia.


Question 7.+ The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneonsly breathing infant during anaesthesia is :
1. Jackson Rees' modification of Ayrcs' T Piece.


Question 8. The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes:
1. Increased RV7TLC.


Question 9. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflux ?
3. Sodium citrate.


Question 10. Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy?
2. It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids.


Question 11.+ The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except:
3. Flexor carpi radialis.


Question 12.+ The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except:
3. Femoral artery.


Question 13.+ All of the following statements regarding vas deference are true except:
4. It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum.

Question 14. The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true except that it:
4. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.

Question 15.+ A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is?
4. Isograft

Question 16.+ The type of joint between the sacrum and the coccyx is a:
1. Symphysis


Question 17.+ The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following features, except that it:
2. Presents a concavity posteriorly.


Question 18.+ All of the following areas are commonly involved sites in pelvic fracture except:
4. Ischial tuberosities.

Question 19.+ The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except:
4. Deep inguinal.

Question 20.+ All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate except:
4. Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow.

Question 21.+ Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the:

2. Lateral lobes.


Question 22. In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the following structures can be felt anteriorly except:
1. internal iliac lymph nodes.


Question 23. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along:
1. upper border of the rib.


Question 24.+ Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as:
1. Transduction.


Question 25. BaiT body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle:
1. interphase.


Question 26. The type of hemoglobin that has least affinity for 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3- DPG) or (2,3-BPG) is:
2. HgF.


Question 27. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried out by all of the following except:
1. Intermediate filaments.



Question 28. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in :
4. Bone marrow.

Question 29.+ An example of a tumour suppressor gene is:
4. Rb.

Question 30. HIV can be detected and confirmed by :
2. Reverse Transcriptase -PCR.


Question 31. Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling?
3. NO.


Question 32.+ All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except:
4. Thyroxine.

Question 33. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estimation, inhibits the enzyme:
3. Enolase.


Question 34. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts by:
1. ADP-ribosylation of the G regulatory protein.


Question 35. The following is not a feature of malignant transformation by cultured cells:
2. Increased requirement for growth factors.


Question 36.+ Osteoclasts are inhibited by:
1. Parathyroid hormone.
2. Calcitonin.
3. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
4. Tumor necrosis factor.

Question 37.+ The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with :
4. IgA antibodies.

Question 38. A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is:
1. Ames test.


Question 39. The predominant isozyme of LDH in cardiac muscle is:
1. LD-1.


Question 40. Both Vitamin K and C are involved in:
2. Post translational modifications.


Question 41. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as:
3. Transferases.


Question 42. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved in:
2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis.


Question 43.+ A highly ionized drug:
1. Is excreted mainly by the kidney.



Question 44. The amino acid residue having an imino side chain is:
4. Proline.

Question 45.+ C02 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as:
4. Bicarbonate.

Question 46. +'Endemic Disease' means that a disease:
2. Is constantly present in a given population group.


Question 47.+ Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease?
2. Case fatality rate.


Question 48. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?
2. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD.


Question 49. +Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of:
3. Doxycycline.


Question 50. All of the following statements are true about Congenital Rubella except:
4. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects.

Question 51. The recommended daily energy intake of an adult woman with heavy work is:
4. 2900.

Question 52.+ All of the following methods are anti-larval measures except:
4. Malathion.

Question 53.+ All of the following are true about the Herd Immunity for infectious diseases except:
2. It is likely to be more for infections that do not have a sub-clinical phase.


Question 54. +The best indicator for monitoring the impact of Iodine Deficiency Disorders control programme is:
1. Prevalence of goiter among school children.


Question 55.+ What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts:
1. Yellow.


Question 56.+ WHO defines adolescent age between:
1. 10-19 years of age.



Question 57. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease. The results of a new diagnostic test on
that disease are as follows. Test result Disease
Present Absent
+ 180 400
- 20 400
What is the percent prevalence of disease?
4. 20.

Question 58. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk except:
4. Methylene blue reduction test.

Question 59.+ What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm:
2. 30.


Question 60. +The most common side effect of IUD insertion is:
1. Bleeding.


Question 61.+ For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except:
3. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.


Question 62.+ A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg. and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from:
1. Very severe disease.


Question 63. The information technology has revolutionized the world of medical sciences. In which of the following year the Information Technology Act was passed by the Government of India?
2. 2000.


Question 64. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in:
4. 1994.

Question 65. Which one of the following is not source of manager's power?
4. Efferent.

Question 66. The standard normal distribution:
4. Has variances 1.0.

Question 67. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a normal distribution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 20 1/min:
1. About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 1/min.


Question 68. The events A and B are mutually exclusive, so:
4. Prob (A) + Prob (B) = 1.



Question 69.+ Total Cholesterol level = a+b (calorie intake) + c (physical activity) +d (body mass index); is an example of:
3. Multiple linear regression.


Question 70. +The Hb level in healthy women has mean 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb level 15.0 g/dl:
4. 1.0.

Question 71. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by:
4. Negative predictivity.

Question 72.+ Infant mortality does not include:
2. Perinatal mortality.


Question 73. A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r = 0.90, p = 0.01) etween the systolic blood pressure values and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong interpretation of the correlation coefficient observed?
1. Since there is a high correlation, the magnitudes of both the measurements are likely to be close to each other.


Question 74.+ All of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor except:
3. Griseofulvin.


Question 75. A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:
4. Tinea cruris.

Question 76. +A 16-year-old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with a collarette of scales
at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:
3. Pityriasis rosea.


Question 77. The only definite indication for giving systemic corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is:
4. Extensive lesions.

Question 78. +A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of erythematous papulopustular lesions on the convexities of the face. There is a background of erythema and telangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis in the patient is:
2. Rosacea.


Question 79.+ An 8-year-old boy from Bihar presents
with a 6 months history of an illdefined, hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is:
2. Indeterminate leprosy.


Question 80. A 27-year old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is:
3. Fixed drug eruption.


Question 81. +In a firearm injury, there is burning, blackening, toattooing around the wound, along with cherry red colour of the surrounding tissues and is cruciate in shape, the injury is:
1. Close shot entry.


Question 82. In methyl alcohol poisoning there is CNS depression, cardiac depression and optic nerve atrophy. These effects are produced due to:
1. Formaldehyde and formic acid.


Question 83. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory examination, except:
4. Blood sample.

Question 84.+ Which of the following statements is not correct regarding diatom?
2. Diatoms has an extracellular coat composed of magnesium.


Question 85.+ In India, magistrate inquest is done in the following cases except:
3. Murder cases.


Question 86. At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will show the following features, except:
1. Characteristic bitter lemon smell.


Question 87. +The most reliable criteria in Gustafson's method of identification is:
2. Transparency of root.


Question 88. The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is:
1. 7 years.


Question 89.+ The most reliable method of identification of an individual is:
1. Dactylography.


Question 90. +The most common pattern of fingerprint is:
2. Loop.


Question 91. A 30 years old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3 fingers on right side and 5* finger on left side. On examination, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed a Hb- 12 gm, TLC - 12000 Cu mm, Platelets 4,30,000, ESR - 49mm. Urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC- 10-15/hpf with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Polyarteritis nodosa.


Question 92.+ Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption ?
1. Giardia lamblia.


Question 93. All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except:
3. Fluorosis.


Question 94. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be raised in all of the following, except:
4. Bronchogenic carcinoma.

Question 95. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by:
2. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP).


Question 96. All of the following are the causes of relative polycythemia except:
4. High altitude.

Question 97. +All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on EKG, except:
2. Constrictive pericarditis.


Question 98. 5'-Nucleotidase activity is increased in:
4. Cholestatic disorders.

Question 99.+Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is:
2. 40-70 mg/dl.


Question 100. Bart's hydrops fetalis is lethal because:
3. Hb Bart's cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues.


Question 101.+ Cluster headache is characterized by all, except:
1. Affects predominantly females.


Question 102. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is:
1. Elevated serum ACh-receptor binding antibodies.


Question 103. +Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except:
4. Myopathy.

Question 104. +EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following, except:
2. Locked - in state.


Question 105. All of the following channelopathies except:
3. Familial hemiplegic migraine.


Question 106. +According to the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), a verbal score of 1 indicates:
1. No response.


Question 107.+ Which of the following is not a neuroparasite?
4. Trichinella spiralis.

Question 108. +A 50 year old man, an alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3 hour history of severe retrostemal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to tHe back and
interscapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min, and a BP of 80/40 mmHg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest x-ray showed left pleural effusion. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Acute aortic dissection.


Question 109. +Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia?
1. Subacute combined degeneration.


Question 110. Which one of the following drugs is Topoisomerase 1 inhibitor'?
2. Irinotecan.


Question 111. Study the following carefully:
Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is:
4. X linked recessive type.

Question 112. Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except:
1. Thrombocytopenia.


Question 113. A 59 year old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular
ejection fraction of 45% and an end-systolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/ml. The most appropriate treatment is :
1. Mitral valve repair of replacement.


Question 114. +The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is:
1. Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry.


Question 115.+ Nevirapine is a :
3. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.


Question116.+ With reference to Eschcrichia coli the except:
3. Enteroinvasive E.coli produces a disease similar to salmonellosis.


Question117.+ The following statements are true regarding melioidosis except:
1. It is caused by Biirkholderia mallei.


Question118. +The following bacteria are most often associated with acute neonatal meningitis except:
3. Neisseria meningitidis.


Question119. +All of the following Vibrio sp. are halophilic, except:
1. V. cholerae.


Question120. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except:
3. Streptococcus pyogenes.


Question121. +The capsule of Cryptococus neofonnans in a CSF sample is best seen by:
2. India ink preparation.


Question122. +In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome?
3. Cerebellum.


Question123. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except:
4. Chemicaly defined media.

Question124. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranes that:
1. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.


Question125. An army jawan posted in a remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104°F and pulse was 70 per min. He had an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following results in Weil-felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting:
3. High OX-K.


Question126.+ Adenosine deaminase (enzyme) deficiency is associated with:
1. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID).


Question127. +Which of the following viral infections is transmitted by tick?
3. Kyasanur forest disease (KFD).


Question128. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial agents except?
4. Klebsiclla pneumoniae.

Question129. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?
1. IgGl.


Question130. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with the following except:
4. Community acquired pneumonia.

Question131. The following statements are true regarding Clostridium perfringens except:
4. Gas gangrene producing strains of C perfringens produce heat resistant spores.

Question132. +The most common organism amongst the following that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is:
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae.


Question133. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 "Rs" i.e., rats, ricefields, and rainfall is:
1. Leptospirosis.


Question134. +A child was diagnosed to be suffering from diarrhoea due to Compylobacter jejuni. Which of the following will be the correct environmental conditions of incubation of the culture plates of the stool sample:
1. Temperature of 42°C and micro- aerophilic. .


Question135. Which one of the following statements is true regarding Chlamydia pneiimoniae:
4. The group specific antigen is responsible for the production of complement fixing antibodies.

Question136.+ Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus:
4. Nuchal edema.

Question137. The highest incidence of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease is in:
2. Asia.


Question138. +The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:
1. Interspinous diameter.


Question139. +The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is :
2. Dysgerrrtinoma.


Question140. Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:
4. Transposition of great arteries.

Question141. Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease:
3. Diaphragm.


Question142. The karyotype of a Patient with Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is:
2. 46xy.


Question143. The following drug is not helpful in the treatment of ectopic Pregnancy:
2. Misoprostol


Question144. +The best period of gestation to carry out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is?
1. 8-10 weeks.


Question145. +Which one of (lie following biochemical parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?
3. Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase.





Question146. Risk of pretenn delivery is increased if cervical length is:
1. 2.5cm.


Question147. Diagnosis of beta Thalassemia is established by:
3. Hb electrophoresis.


Question148. +All are the risk factors associated with macrosomia except:
4. Short Stature.

Question149. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy?
2. Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women.


Question150. +All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation except:
4. Gestational diabetes.

Question151.+ Misopro.stol has been found to lie effective in all of the following except:
3. Menorrhagia.


Question152. All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except:
2. Raloxifene.


Question153. In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised:
3. Serum lactic dehydrogenase.


Question154. +Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:
4. Yellow fever.

Question155. +The most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea in India is:
1. Endometrial tuberculosis.


Question156. In Klippel-Feil syndrome, the patient has all of the following clinical features except:
3. Bilateral shortness of sterno mastoid muscles.


Question157. The most common sequelae of tuberculous spondylitis in an adolescent is:
2. Bony-Ankylosis.


Question158.+ In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is:
4. Technetium-99m linked to Methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP).

Question159. +Heberden's arthropathy affects:
4. Distal interphalangeal joints.

Question160. Subtrochanteric fractures of femur can be treated by all of the following methods except:
2. Smith Petersen Nail.


Question161. All of the following are true about fracture of the atlas vertebra, except:
4. CT scans should be done for diagnosis.

Question162. +A 30 year old man had road, traffic accident and sustained fracture of femur. Two days later he developed sudden
breathlessness. The most probable cause can be:
4. Fat Embolism.

Question163. +A 45 year old was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?
2. Avascular necrosis.


Question164. +All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery except:
1. Superior thyroid artery.


Question165. All are true for Gradenigo's syndrome except:
1. It is associated with conductive hearing loss.


Question166. +The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is:
1. Hoarseness.


Question167. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of:
2. Lip.


Question168. +Androphonia can be corrected by doing:
3. Type 3 Thyroplasty.


Question169. +In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen?
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.


Question170. Use of seigel's speculum during examination of the ear provides all except:
3. Removal of foreign body from the ear.


Question171.+ Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on:
4. 72 hours after birth.

Question172.+ A child with recurrent urinary tract infections is most likely to show:
2. Vesicoureteric reflux.


Question173. +The appropriate approach to a neonate presenting with vaginal bleeding on day 4 of life is:
3. No specific therapy.


Question174. +Which one of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
4. Dexamethasone.


Question175. The coagulation profile in a 13-year old girl with Menorrhagia having von Willebrands disease is:
1. Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal PT.


Question176. All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency, except:
4. Autonomic dysfunction.

Question177. +Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as:
1. Genomic imprinting.


Question178. The chances of having an unaffected baby, when both parents have achondroplasia, are:
2. 25%.


Question179. +All of the following therapies may be required in a 1-hour-old infant with severe birth asphyxia except:
2. Dexamethasone.


Question180. +The most common leukocytoclastic vasculitis affecting children is:
3. Henoch Schonelin purpura.


Question181. A four year old boy was admitted with a history of abdominal pain and fever for two months, maculopapular rash for ten days, and dry cough, dyspnea and wheezing for three days. On examination, liver and spleen were enlarged 4 cm and 3 cm respectively below the costal margins. His hemoglobin was 10.0 g/dl, platelet count 37 x lO'/L and total leukocyte count 70 x 10"/L, which included 80% eosinophils. Bone marrow examination revealed a cellular marrow comprising 45% blasts and 34% eosinophils and Eosinophilic precursors. The blasts stained negative for myeloperoxidase and non- specific esterase and were positive for CD19, CD10, CD22 and CD20. Which one of the following statements in not true about this disease?
3. Peripheral blood eosinophilia may normalize with chemotherapy.


Question182. +Kidney biopsy from a child with hemolytic uremic syndrome characteristically most features of:
1. Thrombotic microangiopathy.


Question183. +The classification proposed by the International Lymphoma Study Group for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is known as :
3. WHO classification.(Latest Robbins Reference Latest Robbins)


Question184. One of the intestinal enzymes that is generally deficient in children following an attack of severe infectious enteritis is:
1. Lactase.

Question185. +A new born presented with bloated abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. A full-thickness biopsy of the rectum was carried out. Which one of the following rectal biopsy findings is most likely to be present?
4. Lack of ganglion cells.

Question186. +All of the following features are seen in the viral pneumonia except:
2. Predominance of alveolar exudates.


Question187.+ Aschoffs nodules are seen in:
3. Rheumatic carditis.


Question188. +Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by:
2. Type II pneumocytes.


Question189. +Which one of the following conditions commonly predisposes to colonic carcinoma?
1. Ulcerative colitis.


Question190. +Fibrinoid necrosis may be observed in all of the following, except:
3. Diabetic glomerulosclerosis.


Question191. +All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except:
1. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix.


Question192. +Which of the following statements pertaining to leukemia is correct?
4. Tartarate resistant acid phosphatase positivity is typically seen in hairy cell leukemia.

Question193. In which of the following conditions bilateral contracted kidneys are characteristically seen?
4. Benign nephrosclerosis.

Question194. All of the following CSF findings are present in tuberculous meningitis, except:
4. Raised sugar levels.

Question195. All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except:
4. Decreased hydrostatic pressure.

Question196. The subtype of Hodgkin's disease, which is histogenetically distinct from all the other subtypes, is:
1. Lymphocyte predominant.


Question197. In apoptosis, Apaf-1 is activated by release of which of the following substances from the mitochondria?
4. Cytochrome C.

Question198. Which type of amyloidosis is caused by mutation of the transthyi-etin protein?
2. Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy.


Question199. In familial Mediterranean fever, the gene encoding the following protein undergoes mutation:
1. Pyrin.

Question200. Which of the following statements is not true?
2. A diagnosis of plasma cell leukemia can be made if circulating peripheral blood plasmablasts comprise 14% of peripheral blood white cells in a patient with white blood cell count of 11 x 109/L and platelet count of 88 x 109/L.


Question201. In-situ DNA nick end labeling can quantitate:
2. Fraction of cells in S phase.


Question202. +Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease?
4. Albumin.

Question203. +Which one of the following stains is specific for Amyloid?
3. Congo red.


Question204. Which one of the following diseases characteristically causes fatty change in liver?
3. Hepatitis C virus infection.
4. Chronic alcoholism. (Both answers are right, but 4 is a better choice)

Question205. A 48 year old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months. On examination, cervical lymph nodes were found enlarged and spleen was palpable 2 cm below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 237 x lO'/L and total leukocyte count 40 xlO"/L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lymphoid cells were positive for CD 19, CD5, CD20 and CD23
and were negative for CD79B and FMC-7. The histopathological examination of the lymph node in this patient will most likely
exhibit effacement of lymph node architecture by:
1. A pseudofollicular pattern with proliferation centers.


Question206. +The following drugs have significant drug interaction with digoxin. except:
4. Amiodipine.

Question207. +One of the following is not true about nesiritide:
3. It has significant oral absorption.


Question208. +All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus except:
1. Multiple sclerosis.


Question209. +Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by:
1. Anticholinergics.


Question210. +Which one of the following is used in therapy of Toxoplasmosis ?
4. Pyrimethamine.



Question211. The following statements regarding finasteride are true except:
3. It blocks the conversion of dihydrotestosterone to testosterone.


Question212. Etemacept acts by one of the following mechanisms :
1. By blocking tumor necrosis factor.


Question213. All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic ether, except:
4. Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias.

Question214. +In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, tlie risk of kemicterus increases with the use of:
4. Sulphonamide.

Question215. Paralysis of 3rd, 401- 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to :
1. Cavernous sinus.


Question216. All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except:
2. Sulphadiazine.


Question217. +Oculogyric crisis is known to be produced by all of the following drugs except:
2. Atropine.


Question218. +Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of migraine?
1. Propranolol.


Question219. Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is:
3. Beta-carboline.


Question220. The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is:
4. Macrolides.

Question221. With which of the following theophylline has an antagonistic interaction?
3. Adenosine receptors.


Question222. One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible:
4. Cloxacillin.

Question223. Which one of the following is best associated with Lumefantrine?
3. Antimalarial.


Question224. Which one of the following drugs increases gastro-intestinal motility?
3. Neostigmine.




Question225. +Which one of the following is the fastest acting inhalational agent?
4. Sevoflurane

Question226. +The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual cortex is most sensitive for the stimulus of:
1. Color contrast.


Question227. +The fibers from the contralateral nasal hemiretina project to the following layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus :
3. Layers 1,4&6.


Question228. All endothelial cells produce thrombomodulin except those found in:
3. Cerebral microcirculation.


Question229. S.A. node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it:
4. Generates impulses at the highest rate.

Question230. The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is:
2. Vasodilatation.


Question231. All of the following factors normally increase the length of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibres except:
4. Lying-to-standing change in posture.

Question232. The vasodilatation produced by carbon dioxide is maximum in one of the following:
2. Brain.


Question233. Which one of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in the tubules?
1. The bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary to Na+ reabsorption. (Incomplete question, it should be like which of the following is true regarding water reabsorption in the tubules?)


Question234. Urinary concentrating ability of the kidney is increased by:
1. ECF volume contraction.


Question235. +Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the:
2. Arterioles.


Question236. In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs?
4. Hypo ventilation.

Question237. Neuronal degeneration is seen in all of the following except:
4. Neuropraxia.

Question238. +With which one of the following Lower motor neuron lesions are associated?
1. Flaccid paralysis.


Question239. +Aspermia is the term used to describe:
1. Absence of semen.


Question240. +Which of the following statements can he regarded as primary action of Inhibin?
4. It inhibits secretion of FSH.

Question241. +A 40 year old male. with history of daily alcohol consumption for the last 7 years, is brought to the hospital emergency room with acute onset of seeing snakes all around him in the room, not recognizing family members, violent behavior and
tremulousness for few hours. There is history of his having missed the alcohol drink since 2 days. Examination reveals increased blood pressure, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment and
insight. He is most likely to be suffering from:
2. Delirium tremens.


Question242. +A 45 year male with a history of alcohol dependence presents with confusion, nystagmus and ataxia. Examination
reveals 6th cranial nerve weakness. He is most likely to be suffering from:
2. Wemicke encephalopathy.


Question243. +A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt ssociated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along
with medications; She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies:
1. Exposure and response prevention.


Question244. An 18 year old boy came to the Psychiatry OPD with a complaint of feeling changed from inside. He described himself as feeling strange as if he is different from his normal self. He was very tense and anxious yet could not point out the precise change in him. This phenomena is best called as:
2. Depersonalizalion.


Question245. The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that;
1. The latter cause minimal or no increase in prolactin.


Question246. Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of:
1. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.


Question247. +All of the following are hallucinogens, except:
4. Methylphenidate.

Question248. An 18 year old student complains of lack of interest in studies for last 6 months. He has frequent quarrels with his parents and has frequent headaches. The most appropriate clinical approach would be to:
2. Rule out depression.


Question249. +Perse veration is:
1. Persistent and inappropriate repetition of the same thoughts.


Question250. +One of the following usually differentiates hysterical symptoms from hypochondriacal symptoms:
1. Symptoms do not normally reflect understandable physiological or pathological mechanism.


Question251. +Which one of the following is the investigation of choice for evaluation of suspected Perthes' disease?
4. Magnetic Resonanc Imaging (MRI).

Question252. Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized by all except:
1. Return of left ventricle & right ventricle to normal size.


Question253. +In which one of the following conditions the Sialography is contraindicated?
3. Acute parotitis.


Question254. +The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhoea is :
3. Cribriform plate.


Question255. Which of the following is the most common renal cystic disease in infants is?
3. Unilateral renal dysplasia.


Question256. The most common type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is:
1. Supracardiac.


Question257. Which one of the following is the most common location of hypertensive bleed in the brain?
1. Putamen/extemal capsule.


Question258. Which one of the following is the most preferred route to perform cerebral angiography?
1. Transfemoral route.


Question259. Which one of the following soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasizes to lymph nodes?
3. Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma.


Question260. Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant?
1. Iodine-125.

Question261. Which one of the following tumors shows calcification on CT Scan.
1. Ependymoma.
3. Meningioma. (Both answers are right)


Question262. The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known a
3. Gating.


Question263. In which of the following diseases, the overall survival is increased by screening procedure?
1. Prostate cancer.
Question264. +Gamma camera in Nuclear Medicine is used for:
2. Measuring the radioactivity.


Question265. At t=0 there are 6xl0" radioactive atoms of a substance, which decay with a disintegration constant (X) equal to
0.01/sec. What would be the initial decay rate?
3. 6xl021.


Question266. +An 18 year old boy comes to the eye casualty with history of injury with a tennis ball. On examination there is no
perforation but there is hyphaema. The most likely source of the blood is
2. Circulus iridis major.


Question267. A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history
of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
1. Vitreous haemorrhage.
Question268. +The mother of a one and a half year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 month. On
computed tomography scan of the orbit there is calcification seen within the globe. The most likely diagnosis is:
2. Retinoblastoma.


Question269. +Enlarged comeal nerves may be seen in all of the following except:
2. Herpes simplex keratitis.


Question270. +Under the WHO 'Vision 2020' programme, the 'SAFE' strategy is adopted for which of the following diseases?
1. Trachoma.


Question271. +Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?
4. IgE.

Question272. Homer's syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:
4. Cycloplegia.

Question273. +The superior oblique muscle is supplied by:
2. 4th cranial nerve.


Question274. Which of the following statement is true regarding Acanthamoeba keratitis?
4. Acanthamoeba does not depend upon a human host for the completion of its life-cycle.

Question275. +A 30 year old man has 6/5 vision each eye, unaided. His cycloplegic retinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. at 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of newsprint at 30 cm, that clears up in about two minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:
3. Accommodative inertia.


Question276. Contact lens wear is proven to have deleterious effects on the comeal physiology Which of the following statements is incorrect in connection with contact lens wear?
1. The level of glucose availability in the comeal epithelium is reduced


Question277. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of:
2. Distal ischaemia affecting the skin of the toes.


Question278. A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following:
3. Duct Papilloma.


Question279. The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is:
1. Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation.


Question280. In which of the following conditions Splenectomy is not useful?
2. Porphyria.

Question281. +The following is ideal for the treatment with injection of sclerosing agents.
2. Internal hemorrhoids.


Question282. +In which of the following locations, Carcinoid tumor is most common?
3. Small bowel.


Question283. +Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and phaeochromocytoma may be associated with :
1. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid.


Question284. +Gardener's syndrome is a rare hereditary disorder involving the colon. It is characterized by :
3. Polyposis colon, osteomas, epidermal inclusion cysts and fibrous tumours in the skin.


Question285. The most common cancer, affecting Indian urban women in Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai, is:
3. Breast cancer.


Question286. All of the following are true for patients of ulcerative colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC).
except:
4. PSC reverts after a total colectomy.

Question287. Which one of the following is not a feature of liver histology in Non cirrhotic portal fibrosis (NCPF)?
4. Bridging fibrosis.

Question288. +The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is :
1. Oesophagitis.


Question289. +Patients of rectovaginal fistula should be initially treated with:
1. Colostomy.


Question290. +A young woman met with an accident and had mild quadriparesis. Her lateral X-ray cervical spine revealed C5-C6 fracture dislocation. Which of the following is the best line of management?
2. Cervical traction followed by instrument fixation.


Question291. +Which of the following catheter materials is most suited for long-term use is?
3. Rubber.


Question292. The main site of bicarbonate reabsorption is :
1. Proximal convoluted tubule.


Question293. Which of the following is the most troublesome source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostatectomy?
1. Dorsal venous complex.


Question294. The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is:
3. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis.


Question295. +The most sensitive imaging modality for diagnosing ureteric stones in a patient with acute colic is:
3. Non contrast CT scan of the abdomen.


Question296. Which one of the following is not used as a tumor marker in testicular tumors?
4. CEA.

Question297. Which one of the following is the common cause of congenital _hvdr(ypphnlr<: is2--_> 3. Aqueductal stenosis.


Question298. +In a child, non-functioning kidney is best diagnosed by:
3. DTPA renogram.


Question299. +The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy is:
2. Neuroblastoma.


Question300. +The most common presentation of a child with Wilms' tumor is:
1. An asymptomatic abdominal mass.

[Guest Alapy]

thanks dr.vivek for posting the answers...from where you got these????